Introductory Human Physiology Quiz

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Introductory Human Physiology Quiz

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Week- 1

Homeostasis and Endocrine System Exam

 

1.
Question 1
Even though no food had entered her stomach, the smell and sight of food caused Jane’s stomach to secrete more acid. This is an example of:

1 point

• feed-forward control
• tonic control
• negative control
• antagonistic control

2.
Question 2
Jerry is a normal 24 year old male with an intracellular fluid (ICF) volume of 24 L. What is the volume of his plasma?

1 point

• 3L
• 9 L
• 6 L
• 12 L

3.
Question 3
In a normal female, plasma levels of the hormone cortisol are highest in the early morning and half maximal at 4:00 in the afternoon. This is an example of:

1 point

• circadian rhythm
• antagonistic control
• tonic control
• autocrine control

4.
Question 4
Estrogen acts in the breast to increase the growth of the glands and the number of estrogen receptors in these cells. This is an example of:

1 point

• positive feedback
• negative feedback
• tonic control
• antagonistic control

5.
Question 5
Potassium ions in the _____ are in equilibrium with potassium ions in the _____.

1 point

• IVF; ISF
• ISF; ICF
• ECF; ICF
• IVF; ICF

6.
Question 6
A membrane that is permeable only to water separates two solutions of glucose dissolved in water. On one side (A) the glucose concentration is 0.1 g/ml. On the other side (B) the glucose is concentration is 0.6 g/ml. Initially the rate of water flow is:

1 point

• more rapid from side B to side A
• the same in both directions
• more rapid from side A to side B
• zero (no flow in either direction)

7.
Question 7
Larry drank 2 cups of hypotonic soup. How did the water in the soup distribute into the intracellular (ICF) and extracellular (ECF) compartments?

1 point

• net water movement from ICF to ECF but less than that seen with isotonic fluid ingestion.
• no change in water distribution between ICF and ECF.
• water will distribute equally (1/2 and 1/2) between ICF and ECF.
• net water movement from ECF to ICF greater than that seen with isotonic fluid ingestion.

8.
Question 8
The single most important factor that determines whether a given cell can be regulated by the steroid hormone aldosterone is the presence in this cell of:

1 point

• active transporters for aldosterone
• specific aldosterone receptors
• heat shock proteins
• cAMP and ADP

9.
Question 9
In obesity related Type II diabetes, levels of the peptide hormone, insulin, are either normal or elevated, yet target cells are less sensitive to the binding of insulin. This suggests that the target cells:

1 point

• are impermeable to insulin
• have a defect in their receptor signaling pathway
• have excess intracellular glucose
• cannot convert insulin to an active form

10.
Question 10
What is the maximum transport rate (Tm ) of the carrier depicted below?

1 point

• 8
• 10
• 20
• 4

11.
Question 11
When steroid hormones bind to their target cell receptors:

1 point

• transcription of DNA is stimulated
• the Na+/K+ ATPase becomes active
• ion channels open
• membrane bound receptors are activated

 

 

 

Week- 2

The Nervous System Exam

1.
Question 1
Which glial cells support neurons metabolically?

1 point

Schwann cells

microglial cells

astrocytes

oligodendrocytes

2.
Question 2
Which of the following will change the equilibrium potential for Na+?

1 point

the gating properties of the Na+ channels

the concentration of the Na+ on the inside of the cell versus the outside

the resting membrane potential of the cell

the ion channels that are open in the cell

3.
Question 3
Depolarization of the membrane means:

1 point

that the membrane potential is more negative than the resting potential

that the membrane potential is less negative than the resting potential

there are more negative charges on the inside of the cell compared to the

outside

that K+ channels are letting K+ into the cell

4.
Question 4
Graded potentials:

1 point

undergo spatial and temporal summation

do not occur until the membrane reaches threshold

are self-propagating

have refractory periods

5.
Question 5
Which of the following is TRUE about myelination?

1 point

It is necessary for saltatory conduction

It slows conduction along dendrites

It acts to electrically insulate synapses ONLY

It occurs only in the central nervous system

6.
Question 6
A neurotransmitter would have a greater chance of starting an action potential in a post-synaptic neuron by:

1 point

causing a graded hyperpolarization in the post-synaptic membrane

closing Na+ channels in the post-synaptic membrane

opening K+ channels in the post-synaptic membrane

causing a graded depolarization in the post-synaptic membrane

7.
Question 7
The portion of the nervous system that integrates sensory information is the:

1 point

central nervous system

parasympathetic nervous system

somatic nervous system

afferent nervous system

sympathetic nervous system

8.
Question 8
The branch of the efferent nervous system that stimulates organs under conditions of rest and digestion is the:

1 point

parasympathetic nervous system

sympathetic nervous system

afferent nervous system

central nervous system

somatic nervous system

 

 

 

Week- 3

The Senses and the Somatic Nervous System Exam

1.
Question 1
In the eye, most of the refraction of light occurs in the:

1 point

lens

cones

cornea

retina

rods

2.
Question 2
The structure that is surrounded by ciliary muscles.

1 point

retina

lens

cornea

cones

rods

3.
Question 3
The frequency of a sound determines:

1 point

the portion of the basilar membrane that vibrates

the vibration of the tectorial membrane

the loudness of a sound

the direction of hair cell stereocilia vibration

4.
Question 4
The otolith organs:

1 point

sense linear acceleration

include three circular canals

sense based on the movement of fluid

sense rotation of the head

5.
Question 5
Contraction of the ciliary muscles of the eye:

1 point

flattens the lens

does not affect the shape of the lens

allows the lens to become more spherical

6.
Question 6
Stimulation of the afferent neuron coming from a skeletal muscle spindle receptor leads to:

1 point

relaxation of a single muscle

stimulation of a single muscle

contraction of the muscle and relaxation of the antagonistic muscle

relaxation of the muscle and contraction of the antagonistic muscle

7.
Question 7
The sensory receptor that detects skeletal muscle tension is:

1 point

nociceptors

gamma motor neurons

the muscle spindle receptor

the Golgi tendon organ

8.
Question 8
The cell bodies of alpha motor neurons controlling the skeletal muscles of the body are found in:

1 point

the ventral horn of the spinal cord

sensory nerves

the dorsal root ganglia outside the spinal cord

 

 

Week- 4

Muscle Exam

1.
Question 1
After a skeletal muscle fiber is treated with a membrane permeable drug that speeds up the action of the SR Ca+2-ATPase, how would the first twitch differ?

1 point

the twitch would last the same amount of time

the twitch would produce more tension

the twitch would last longer

the twitch would be shorter

2.
Question 2
After a skeletal muscle fiber is treated with a membrane permeable drug that speeds up the action of the SR Ca+2-ATPase, how would contraction differ after multiple and frequent action potentials?

1 point

fused tetanus would be reached sooner than an untreated fiber

the maximal tension would be increased compared to an untreated fiber

fused tetanus would be reached later than an untreated fiber

fused tetanus would be reached in the same amount of time as an untreated

fiber

3.
Question 3
During muscle contraction, the portion of the sarcomere that shortens is:

1 point

the myosin band (A band)

the myosin filaments

the actin only band (I band)

the actin filaments

4.
Question 4
Which of the following is the typical order of motor unit recruitment?

1 point

fast-glycolytic, fast-oxidative, slow-oxidative

slow-oxidative, fast-oxidative, fast-glycolytic

slow-oxidative, fast-glycolytic, fast-oxidative

fast-oxidative, slow-oxidative, fast-glycolytic

5.
Question 5
Which factor regulates cross-bridge formation in skeletal muscle?

1 point

amino acid concentration in the cytoplasm

glycogen concentration in the cytoplasm

Ca+2 concentration in the cytoplasm

glucose concentration in the cytoplasm

6.
Question 6
Which of the following types of muscles have sufficient numbers of gap junctions between fibers to propagate action potentials between cells?

1 point

both cardiac muscle and multi-unit smooth muscle

multi-unit smooth muscle only

both cardiac muscle and single-unit smooth muscle

single-unit smooth muscle only

cardiac muscle only

7.
Question 7
The dominant mechanism for the removal of Ca2+ from the cytosol following contraction of the cardiac muscle cell is the:

1 point

L type Ca+2 channel

SR Ca+2 release channel (ryanodine receptor)

SR Ca+2 ATPase

Na+/Ca+2 exchanger

8.
Question 8
Smooth muscle cells differ from skeletal muscle cells in that smooth muscle does NOT contain:

1 point

thin filaments

myosin ATPase activity

troponin–tropomyosin complexes

dense bodies

9.
Question 9
In smooth muscle cells, a pacemaker potential differs from a graded potential because pacemaker potentials:

1 point

always reach threshold

activate with the influx (entry) of Cl-

activate with the efflux of Na+

vary in size

 

 

Week- 5

Cardiovascular System Exam

1.
Question 1
Ventricular repolarization in the human heart:

1 point

begins in the atria and travels in the same direction as the depolarization wave.

results from phase 2 of the fast action potential.

is represented by the T wave on the electrocardiogram (ECG).

is represented by the QRS complex on the electrocardiogram (ECG)

2.
Question 2
Which changes will occur in the fast action potential of a normal heart (depicted below) as the heart rate increases from 70 to 150 beats per minute?

1 point

duration of phase 0 will increase.

duration of phase 2 will decrease.

duration of phase 1 will increase.

absolute refractory period will lengthen.

3.
Question 3
Which is TRUE of the cardiac pacemaker cell action potential shown below?

1 point

Repolarization in Phase 3 is due to potassium efflux (exit) from the cell.

Phase 2 depolarization is caused by an increase in sodium influx (entry) into the cell.

Slow depolarization in phase 4 is due to calcium efflux (exit) from the cell.

Phase 3 is caused by the opening of the funny sodium channels.

4.
Question 4
AV valves of the heart open and close because of:

1 point

nervous impulses to papillary muscles.

passive recoil of valves.

changes in pressure in adjacent chambers.

mechanical stretching of the fibers attached to the valves as the myocardium contracts and relaxes.

5.
Question 5
The region of the heart that normally has the highest rate of spontaneous action potentials is the:

1 point

Purkinje fibers

Atrioventricular (AV) node

Bundle of HIS

Sinoatrial (SA) node

6.
Question 6
In an electrocardiogram (ECG) shown below, the atrio-ventricular (AV) conduction time is reflected in the:

1 point

P-wave duration

T-wave duration

QT interval

PR interval

7.
Question 7
Due to differences in opposing forces, there is usually a net _____ occurring at the arteriolar end of most capillaries coupled with net ___ at the venous end.

1 point

absorption; filtration

filtration; absorption

8.
Question 8
Dilation of the arterioles in a single organ would lead to:

1 point

an increase in pressure in the large arteries of that organ.

an increase in capillary pressure in that organ.

a decrease in both capillary and venous pressures in that organ.

a decrease in blood flow to that organ resulting from the decreased blood pressure.

9.
Question 9
Increasing venous return increases cardiac output by:

1 point

decreasing end diastolic volume

increasing the stroke volume

decreasing the ejection fraction

increasing heart rate

10.
Question 10
What is the ejection fraction for the left ventricle depicted in the P-V loop depicted below?

1 point

100%

80%

60%

50%

11.
Question 11
Contrast the following:

(i) velocity of blood flow in capillaries

(ii) velocity of blood flow in aorta

1 point

(ii) > (i)

(i) = or nearly = (ii)

(i) > (ii)

12.
Question 12
Joan rose quickly from her bed to answer the front doorbell. In response to rising, her baroreceptors:

1 point

decreased firing

had no change in their firing rate

increased firing

 

 

Week- 6

Respiratory System Exam

1.
Question 1
The volume of air inspired by a person at rest is the:

1 point

residual volume

inspiratory reserve volume

vital capacity

total lung capacity

tidal volume

2.
Question 2
The lung volume that increases in a person with obstructive lung disease is the:

1 point

inspiratory reserve volume

vital capacity

tidal volume

residual volume

total lung capacity

3.
Question 3
The volume of air that can be exhaled after maximal inspiration is the:

1 point

tidal volume

inspiratory reserve volume

residual volume

vital capacity

total lung capacity

4.
Question 4
Inspiratory capacity minus tidal volume equals:

1 point

inspiratory reserve volume

vital capacity

total lung capacity

residual volume

tidal volume

5.
Question 5
The volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal exhalation is the:

1 point

vital capacity

inspiratory reserve volume

residual volume

tidal volume

total lung capacity

6.
Question 6
Compliance is:

1 point

decreased in a person with emphysema

increased in a person with restrictive lung disease

the change in lung volume per unit change in transpulmonary pressure

7.
Question 7
Air flows into the lung when:

1 point

PA equals Patm

PA is less than Patm

PA is greater than Patm

8.
Question 8
The intrapleural pressure is determined by:

1 point

the elastic recoil of the lung

atmospheric pressure

PaO2

9.
Question 9
FEV1/FVC (Forced expiratory volume in 1 second/Forced vital capacity) is less than 80% in:

1 point

patients with restrictive lung disease

patients with obstructive lung disease

10.
Question 10
Which breathing pattern gives the greatest alveolar ventilation (ml/min) in a person with an anatomic dead space of 150 ml?

1 point

200 ml tidal volume, 30 breaths per minute

1150 ml tidal volume, 5 breaths per minute

450 ml tidal volume, 12 breaths per minute

11.
Question 11
During expiration, the PACO2:

1 point

stays the same

decreases

increases

12.
Question 12
When the O2 – hemoglobin curve shifts to the left it means:

1 point

that the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen has increased

nothing in terms of hemoglobin affinity for oxygen

that the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen has decreased

13.
Question 13
With increasing plasma H+ concentration, minute ventilation will:

1 point

decrease

increase

remain the same

14.
Question 14
A situation that may lead to respiratory acidosis would be:

1 point

vomiting

mild exercise

hyperventilation

hypoventilation

15.
Question 15
Hypoxia due to cyanide poisoning results in:

1 point

anemic hypoxia

histotoxic hypoxia

hypoxic hypoxia

ischemic hypoxia

 

 

Week- 7

The Endocrine System Exam

1.
Question 1
A 42 year old mother has an enlarged thyroid gland and elevated levels of triiodothyronine in her blood. Predict her heart rate.

1 point

Bradycardia (below 60 bpm)

Tachycardia (above 100 bpm)

Normal (60-100 bmp)

2.
Question 2
In chronic iodine deficiency, the thyroid gland:

1 point

remains unchanged.

enlarges due to elevated secretion of thyroid hormone.

shrinks due to decreased secretion of thyroid hormone.

enlarges due to elevated secretion of TSH.

3.
Question 3
In response to stress, cortisol and _____, increase lipolysis of fat.

1 point

Thyroxine (T4)

Insulin like-growth factor -1 (IGF-1)

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Epinephrine

Aldosterone

4.
Question 4
Athletes who inject high doses of human growth hormone (GH), exhibit increased muscle mass and increased blood levels of:

1 point

Thyroxine (T4)

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Epinephrine

Triiodothyronine (T3)

Insulin like-growth factor -1 (IGF-1)

5.
Question 5
In response to an increase in blood Na+ levels, the posterior pituitary secretes:

1 point

Epinephrine

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Aldosterone

Insulin like-growth factor -1 (IGF-1)

6.
Question 6
Excess secretion of ACTH can cause beard growth and deepening of the voice in a female because of the secretion of:

1 point

Epinephrine

Insulin like-growth factor -1 (IGF-1)

Triiodothyronine (T3)

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)

7.
Question 7
In humans the normal secretion of ACTH is correctly described as:

1 point

decreased by the weak androgen DHEA

increased by cortisol

decreased by low plasma glucose

pulsatile and circadian

8.
Question 8
Which of the following initiates its biological effects by activating cell membrane bound receptors?

1 point

cortisol

aldosterone

epinephrine

thyroxine (T4)

9.
Question 9
Which of the following findings are most likely present in an individual with high circulating levels of aldosterone due to a tumor?

1 point

hyperkalemia (increased blood K+ levels)

decreased ECF volume

hypokalemia (decreased blood K+ levels)

no change in either K+ blood concentration or ECF volume

10.
Question 10
During the fed (anabolic) state, nervous tissue derives most of its metabolic energy from:

1 point

amino acids

ketones

glucose

fatty acids

11.
Question 11
During the fasting state, plasma glucose levels decrease to < 80 mg/dL leading to secretion of ____ from alpha cells of the pancreatic islet.

1 point

insulin

growth hormone

cortisol

glucagon

12.
Question 12
Insulin secretion from the pancreas is inhibited by an increase in:

1 point

blood glucose levels above 130 mg/dL.

plasma amino acids

plasma epinephrine levels.

intracellular ATP within the beta islet cells.

13.
Question 13
In skeletal muscle, insulin activated receptors:

1 point

inhibit the entry of glucose.

recruit glucose transporters to the plasma membrane.

are located in the nucleus.

open ATP gated K+ channels to speed repolarization.

 

 

Week- 8

The Reproductive System Exam

1.
Question 1
In the male and female, inhibin B provides a negative feedback signal which regulates:

1 point

LH ONLY

FSH ONLY

LH, FSH and GnRH

GnRH ONLY

2.
Question 2
Puberty does not normally occur in humans under the age of 8 years, because before that age:

1 point

the hypothalamus is very sensitive to negative feedback by gonadal steroids

the pituitary secretes excess amounts of gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH)

the hypothalamus is unresponsive to gonadal steroids

the ovaries and testes cannot secrete gonadal steroids

3.
Question 3
The phase of the uterus is directly determined by hormones released by the:

1 point

ovary

hypothalamus

pituitary

4.
Question 4
If the progesterone receptor gene is inactive in a female of reproductive age, you would expect:

1 point

decreased expression of estrogen receptors in the uterus

no change in the expression of estrogen receptors in the uterus

increased expression of estrogen receptors in the uterus

5.
Question 5
Human chorionic gonadotrophin, hCG, produced by the forming embryo, is essential for pregnancy to occur because:

1 point

it can be detected in a woman’s urine

it allows the corpus luteum to continue producing estrogen and progesterone

it acts as a growth hormone for the developing baby

6.
Question 6
Inactivation of the estrogen receptor in a human male would:

1 point

accelerate closure of the epiphyseal plate, restricting height.

prevent closure of the epiphyseal plate, leading to excess height.

decrease bone density (osteoporosis).

7.
Question 7
In men, an inactivating mutation in the LH receptor would most likely cause:

1 point

low circulating testosterone levels but no change in intra-testicular testosterone levels

increased sperm production

an absence of secondary male characteristics

8.
Question 8
High levels of testosterone were administered in a clinical trial to evaluate various end-points of testosterone action. The results showed that treated males had:

1 point

decreased levels of dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

decreased sperm count

increased secretion of testosterone by the testes

increased sperm count

 

 

Week- 9

The Gastrointestinal System Exam

1.
Question 1
The most effective inhibitor of human gastric acid secretion is:

1 point

a histamine H2 receptor inhibitor

a proton pump inhibitor

somatostatin

gastrin

2.
Question 2
The arrival of food in the lumen of the stomach directly increases the secretion of ______ which acts to increase gastric acid secretion.

1 point

somatostatin.

histamine.

gastrin.

pepsin.

3.
Question 3
The main signal in the stomach lumen that results in inhibition of gastrin secretion is:

1 point

histamine.

proteins and amino acids.

protons (H+).

somatostatin.

4.
Question 4
The main signal in the small intestine lumen that results in increased pancreatic bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) secretion is:

1 point

cholecystokinin (CCK).

proteins and amino acids.

secretin.

protons (H+).

5.
Question 5
In the stomach lumen, pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by:

1 point

bicarbonate (HCO3-)

trypsin

hydrochloric acid (HCl)

carbonic anhydrase

6.
Question 6
After eating a steak, the amount of hydrochloric acid (HCl) and the pH in the human stomach:

1 point

stay relatively constant in the first 60 minutes

decrease in the first 60 minutes.

increase in the first 60 minutes

7.
Question 7
The secretion of bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) by the pancreas increases in response to:

1 point

secretin

somatostatin

gastrin

glucagon like peptide -1

8.
Question 8
What hormone stimulates the secretion of inactive enzymes (zymogens) from the pancreas?

1 point

cholecystokinin (CCK)

histamine

secretin

gastrin

9.
Question 9
Vomiting uses primarily:

1 point

contraction of respiratory and abdominal skeletal muscles.

the migrating motor complex (MMC)

mass movement.

contraction of the inner smooth muscle mass to generate reverse peristalsis.

10.
Question 10
Fats from the diet cross the intestine epithelial cells to enter the ____ as chylomicrons.

1 point

lymphatic circulation

blood circulation

11.
Question 11
The electrical depolarizations that occur rhythmically in the intestine in the fed state are called:

1 point

slow waves.

migrating myoelectric complexes (MMCs).

mass movements.

action potentials.

12.
Question 12
The mechanism of absorption of glucose into the body is:

1 point

secondary active transport

facilitated diffusion.

simple diffusion.

primary active transport.

 

 

Week- 10 

The Urinary System Exam

1.
Question 1
Renal threshold of substance X refers to the plasma concentration of X where:

1 point

the secretion of X equals the reabsorption of X.

all of the renal transporters for X are saturated.

maximal glomerular filtration of X occurs.

2.
Question 2
Jane donated 1 liter of blood to the Red Cross this morning. To maintain volume homeostasis, plasma levels of _____ increased.

1 point

aldosterone ONLY

antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ONLY

aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone

atrial natriuretic factor ONLY

3.
Question 3
A normal human triples his dietary salt (NaCl) intake over two weeks. This will lead to:

1 point

an increase in plasma volume

an increase in plasma aldosterone concentration

an increase in plasma pH

an increase in plasma renin activity

4.
Question 4
Activation of the renin-angiotensin II-aldosterone system (RAAS) will:

1 point

increase the oncotic pressure in the glomerular capillary.

decrease hydrostatic pressure in the vasa recta.

increase the filtrate pressure within the renal tubule.

decrease the filtrate pressure within Bowman’s space.

5.
Question 5
In a normal kidney, if drug X is freely filtered by the glomerulus and its clearance is greater than that of inulin, then:

1 point

Drug X is reabsorbed by the renal tubules.

Drug X cannot be compared to inulin.

Drug X is secreted by the renal tubules.

Drug X is insoluble in urine.

6.
Question 6
When the mean arterial pressure (MAP) increases from 90 mmHg to 100 mmHg in a normal kidney, renal blood flow:

1 point

increases

decreases

remains unchanged

7.
Question 7
Use the following values to calculate the filtration pressure within a glomerulus. Hydrostatic pressure, 45 mm Hg; Bowman’s capsule fluid pressure, 15 mm Hg; Oncotic pressure, 20 mmHg.

1 point

30 mm Hg

80 mm Hg

10 mm Hg

40 mm Hg

8.
Question 8
Increased delivery of Na+ to the principal cells of the renal tubule leads to increased:

1 point

secretion of K+

reabsorption of Na+ and K+

secretion of Na+

9.
Question 9
In a normal kidney, tubular fluid (filtrate) is always isotonic in the:

1 point

Collecting duct (CD)

Thick ascending Loop of Henle (TAL)

Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)

Ureter

10.
Question 10
Inhibition of the co-transporter for sodium, chloride and potassium in the ____ will increase the amount of urine excreted.

1 point

Thin Loop of Henle

Thick ascending Loop of Henle (TAL)

Collecting duct (CD)

Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)

11.
Question 11
In normal kidneys, most of the filtered bicarbonate is reabsorbed within the:

1 point

Thin Loop of Henle

Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)

Collecting duct (CD)

Thick ascending Loop of Henle (TAL)

12.
Question 12
John drank 2 liters of water in 1 hour. This lowered his blood osmolality to 240 mOsM (normal 290 mOsM) and caused a rapid increase in plasma levels of:

1 point

antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

atrial natriuretic factor (ANF)

aldosterone